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Bookmark or Share- "None of us is" vs "None of us are", Which is Correct?Usage Note: It is widely asserted that none is equivalent to no one, and hence requires a singular verb and singular pronoun: None of the prisoners was given his soup. It is true that none is etymologically derived from the Old English word ān , "one," but the word has been used as both a singular and a plural since the ninth century.
- "She" or "her" following "no one but"?No one but her ever made a perfect score on the test. In the above sentence, but could be replaced with except (for) or excluding. However, if you define it as a conjunction, the subjective (nominative) case could also be used. No one but she ever made a perfect score on the test. The above sentence is coordinated from the below sentence:
- Is "Jack of all trades, master of none" really just a part of a longer ...Blood is thicker than water. > The blood of the covenant is thicker than the water of the womb. [UNKNOWN, this has been asked here already, but no answers were accepted] Jack of all trades, master of none. > Jack of all trades, master of none, but better than a master of one. Great minds think alike. > Great minds think alike, but fools rarely ...
- grammaticality - Origin and correctness of “ain’t no”? - English ...(איך האָב ניט קין הױז) 'I don't have a house' (lit 'I have not no house') Using negatives this way is known as Negative Concord. Many English dialects, especially in informal registers, have a negative concord system; one well-known example is AAVE.
- "no one" vs "no one else" - English Language & Usage Stack ExchangeNo one is correct. John can not like you more than John likes you therefore saying no one else is insinuating that other than John, no one likes you more. Therefore stating that John likes you more than John does, which is impossible.
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