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Bookmark or Share- etymology - Is "I be", grammatically correct? - English Language ...He is;(8) ----- They be. (8)"I think it 'be thine' indeed, for thou liest in it." Shakespear, Hamlet. Be ...
- contractions - Does "he's" mean both "he is" and "he has"? - English ...He's angry. He's been angry. But the third one is incorrect. You cannot shorten "he has a house" to "he's a house." You can only shorten "he has got a house" to "he's got a house." [Again, note what @Optimal Cynic claims] More examples: Correct: I have an apple. Correct: I have got an apple. Correct: I've got an apple. Incorrect: I've an apple.
- It was he ... / It was him [duplicate] - English Language & Usage Stack ...So the subject pronoun "he" follows the verb "to be" as follows: It is he. This is she speaking. It is we who are responsible for the decision to downsize. It was he who messed up everything. Also, when the word "who" is present and refers to a personal pronoun, such as "he," it takes the verb that agrees with that pronoun. Correct: It is I who ...
- Usage of "he himself" - English Language & Usage Stack ExchangeNot getting into "he himself", there should definitely be a comma after because: "unless he himself wants to turn evil" is interrupting the clause beginning with because – Kosmonaut Commented Oct 19, 2010 at 22:33
- differences - When should I use "born to" vs. "born of"? - English ...I want to shorten the sentence "Memories can only ever be created now." I'm debating between Memories are born of now. and Memories are born to now. The former sounds better, but is there a
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