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Bookmark or Share- I have learned that 1/0 is infinity, why isn't it minus infinity?$\begingroup$ @Swivel But 0 does equal -0. Even under IEEE-754. The only reason IEEE-754 makes a distinction between +0 and -0 at all is because of underflow, and for +/- ∞, overflow.
- Prove that the sequence (1+1/n)^n is convergent [duplicate]Stack Exchange Network. Stack Exchange network consists of 183 Q&A communities including Stack Overflow, the largest, most trusted online community for developers to learn, share their knowledge, and build their careers.
- Homotopy groups U(N) and SU(N): $\\pi_m(U(N))=\\pi_m(SU(N))$Stack Exchange Network. Stack Exchange network consists of 183 Q&A communities including Stack Overflow, the largest, most trusted online community for developers to learn, share their knowledge, and build their careers.
- Calculating the Order of An Element in A GroupA group can have finite or infinite number of elements. When the group has finite number of elements, we see the least POSITIVE n i.e.(n>0) such that g^n gives the identity of the group (in case of multiplication) or n*g gives the identity (in case of addition).
- probability - Let $U_1,U_2,...$ be a sequence of independent uniform ...Stack Exchange Network. Stack Exchange network consists of 183 Q&A communities including Stack Overflow, the largest, most trusted online community for developers to learn, share their knowledge, and build their careers.
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